vajiram & ravi upsc 2016 prelims answer key – set a b c d check here cutoff marks

Civil service exam (IAS) is being taken under the supervision of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and is considered as one of the most toughest exams. To clear this exam, one must be very well focused only then one could be able to make to the end. After the conduction of preliminary test, the main exam would take place for the qualified contenders. The test was taken today (7th of August, 2016). Most of you must be worried about their given performance in the test. There is one way to do and that is to download upsc 2016 prelims answer key. But, unfortunately the official download link is’nt yet updated. So, you people are required to keep some patience to download that. But need not to worry as there are various coaching centers out there who are going to update upsc 2016 prelims answer key at their portals. All you have to do is visit one of the coaching center web portal and download the solved keys from there.

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vajiram & ravi upsc 2016 prelims answer key – set a b c d check here cutoff marks

upsc 2016 prelims answer key could be grabbed from the site of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) once the download link is updated over there. The solved question paper of UPSC Civil service (IAS) prelims exam will be available for download for each set code. General Studies Paper-I will be available here in the code A, B, C and D. However, General Studies Paper-II will be available in A and X, B and Y, C and D after the exam is over. While downloading the upsc 2016 prelims answer key, contenders need to keep this thing mind that download the answer sheet according to the test booklet provided to them during the exam.

Also Read :- UPSC civil services prelims paper allegedly leaked rumors 07 aug latest news 2016

Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2016 GS Paper II Answer key 2016

SR.NO.

SET A

SET B

SET C

SET D

1

c

d

c

d

2

d

b

d

b

3

d

a

a

b

4

d

a

d

a

5

c

b

b

d

6

c

b

d

a

7

d

d

b

a

8

d

b

b

d

9

b

d

b

b

10

d

c

a

b

11

d

b

b

b

12

b

a

d

d

13

d

a

b

b

14

c

b

d

b

15

a

a

d

b

16

c

d

a

c

17

b

d

b

b

18

b

d

a

c

19

c

c

b

c

20

c

c

c

d

21

d

c

d

c

22

b

d

b

d

23

b

d

a

a

24

a

d

a

d

25

d

c

b

b

26

a

c

b

d

27

a

d

d

b

28

d

d

b

b

29

b

b

d

b

30

b

d

c

a

31

b

d

b

b

32

d

b

a

d

33

b

d

a

b

34

b

c

b

d

35

b

a

a

d

36

c

c

d

a

37

b

b

d

b

38

c

b

d

a

39

c

c

c

b

40

d

c

c

c

41

c

d

c

d

42

d

b

d

b

43

a

b

d

a

44

d

a

d

a

45

b

d

c

b

46

d

a

c

b

47

b

a

d

d

48

b

d

d

b

49

b

b

b

d

50

a

b

d

c

51

b

b

d

b

52

d

d

b

a

53

b

b

d

a

54

d

b

c

b

55

d

b

a

a

56

a

c

c

d

57

b

b

b

d

58

a

c

b

d

59

b

c

c

c

60

c

d

c

c

61

d

c

d

c

62

b

d

b

d

63

a

a

b

d

64

a

d

a

d

65

b

b

d

c

66

b

d

a

c

67

d

b

a

d

68

b

b

d

d

69

d

b

b

b

70

c

a

b

d

71

b

b

b

d

72

a

d

d

b

73

a

b

b

d

74

b

d

b

c

75

a

d

b

a

76

d

a

c

c

77

d

b

b

b

78

d

a

c

b

79

c

b

c

c

80

c

c

d

c

 Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2016 GS Paper II Answer key 2016

SR.NO.

SET A

SET B

SET C

SET D

1

c

d

c

d

2

d

b

d

b

3

d

a

a

b

4

d

a

d

a

5

c

b

b

d

6

c

b

d

a

7

d

d

b

a

8

d

b

b

d

9

b

d

b

b

10

d

c

a

b

11

d

b

b

b

12

b

a

d

d

13

d

a

b

b

14

c

b

d

b

15

a

a

d

b

16

c

d

a

c

17

b

d

b

b

18

b

d

a

c

19

c

c

b

c

20

c

c

c

d

21

d

c

d

c

22

b

d

b

d

23

b

d

a

a

24

a

d

a

d

25

d

c

b

b

26

a

c

b

d

27

a

d

d

b

28

d

d

b

b

29

b

b

d

b

30

b

d

c

a

31

b

d

b

b

32

d

b

a

d

33

b

d

a

b

34

b

c

b

d

35

b

a

a

d

36

c

c

d

a

37

b

b

d

b

38

c

b

d

a

39

c

c

c

b

40

d

c

c

c

41

c

d

c

d

42

d

b

d

b

43

a

b

d

a

44

d

a

d

a

45

b

d

c

b

46

d

a

c

b

47

b

a

d

d

48

b

d

d

b

49

b

b

b

d

50

a

b

d

c

51

b

b

d

b

52

d

d

b

a

53

b

b

d

a

54

d

b

c

b

55

d

b

a

a

56

a

c

c

d

57

b

b

b

d

58

a

c

b

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59

b

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c

c

60

c

d

c

c

61

d

c

d

c

62

b

d

b

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63

a

a

b

d

64

a

d

a

d

65

b

b

d

c

66

b

d

a

c

67

d

b

a

d

68

b

b

d

d

69

d

b

b

b

70

c

a

b

d

71

b

b

b

d

72

a

d

d

b

73

a

b

b

d

74

b

d

b

c

75

a

d

b

a

76

d

a

c

c

77

d

b

b

b

78

d

a

c

b

79

c

b

c

c

80

c

c

d

c

Booklet Series ‘A’

Examination Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2016
Series A   Subject GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I
Maximum Marks 200   No of Items 100    
No of items to be taken for Scoring 100 No. of Items dropped NIL    
1 A 16  C 31  B 46 C 61 D 76 C 91 C
2 C 17 C 32 A 47 A 62 B 77 B 92 B
3 C 18  D 33 C 48 A/C 63 D 78 D 93 D
4 B 19 C 34  C 49 A 64 D 79 D 94 B
5 C 20 B 35  B 50 B 65 B 80 B 95 D
6 B 21 B 36  A 51 B 66 B 81 A 96 D
7 D 22 D 37 C 52 C 67 B 82 B 97 B
8 C 23 A 38  C 53 A 68 D 83 C 98 C
9  C 24 B 39 B 54 D 69 B 84 C 99 A
10  B 25 D 40 B 55 A 70 A 85 B 100 B
11 A 26 C 41 D 56 C 71 C 86 B
12  D 27 B 42 A 57 A 72 D 87 D
13 C 28 D 43 C 58 C 73 A 88 C
14 D 29 A 44 A 59 D 74 D 89 D
15 C 30  C 45 A 60 B 75 B 90 D

 

Booklet Series ‘B’

Examination Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2016
Series   Subject GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I
Maximum Marks 200   No of Items 100    
No of items to be taken for Scoring 100 No. of Items dropped NIL    
1  C 16  C 31  B 46 B 61 A 76 B 91 B
2  B 17  B 32  D 47 D 62 C 77 C 92 B
3  D 18  D 33  C 48 A 63 C 78 A 93 D
4  D 19  B 34  C 49 B 64 B 79 D 94 B
5  B 20  D 35  B 50 D 65 B 80 A 95 A
6  A 21  D 36  A 51 C 66 D 81 C 96 C
7 22  B 37  D 52 B 67 A 82 A 97 D
8  C 23  C 38  C 53 D 68 C 83 C 98 A
9  C 24  A 39  D 54 A 69 A 84 D 99 D
10  B 25  B 40  C 55 C 70 A 85 B 100 B
11  B 26  B 41  C 56 B 71 C 86 A
12  D 27  C 42  C 57 A 72 A 87 B
13  C 28  C 43  D 58 C 73 A/C 88 D
14  D 29  B 44  C 59 C 74 A 89 D
15  D 30  C 45  B 60 B 75 B 90 B

 

Also to download the PDF of the Answer Key of Series ‘B’ click here.

 

Booklet Series ‘C’

Examination Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2016
Series C   Subject GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I
Maximum Marks 200   No of Items 100    
No of items to be taken for Scoring 100 No. of Items dropped NIL    
1 16 B 31 A 46 D 61 A 76 C 91 D
2 C 17 B 32 B 47 B 62 D 77 B 92 A
3 A 18 D 33 C 48 C 63 C 78 D 93 C
4 D 19  B 34  C 49 A 64 D 79 A 94 A
5 A 20 A 35  B 50 B 65 C 80 C 95 A
6 C 21 C 36 B 51 D 66 C 81 B 96 C
7 A 22 D 37  D 52 C 67 C 82 A 97 A
8  C 23 A 38  C 53 C 68 D 83 C 98 A/C
9 D 24 D 39  D 54 B 69 C 84 C 99 A
10  B 25  B 40 D 55 C 70 B 85 B 100 B
11 A 26 C 41  C 56 B 71 B 86 A
12 27 B 42 B 57 D 72 D 87 C
13 D 28 D 43  D 58 C 73 A 88 C
14  D 29 D 44 B 59 C 74 B 89 B
15 30 B 45 D 60 B 75 D 90 D

 

Booklet Series ‘D’

Examination Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2016
Series D   Subject GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I
Maximum Marks 200   No of Items 100    
No of items to be taken for Scoring 100 No. of Items dropped NIL    
1  C 16 D 31 C 46 C 61 B 76 B 91 C
2  B 17 A 32 A 47 D 62 D 77 C 92 C
3  D 18 C 33 C 48 A 63 C 78 C 93 D
4 A 19 A 34 D 49 D 64 D 79 B 94 C
5 C 20 A 35  B 50 B 65 D 80 C 95 B
6 21 C 36  A 51 C 66 C 81 B 96 B
7 A 22 A 37 B 52 B 67 B 82 D 97 D
8  C 23  A/C 38 D 53 D 68 D 83 C 98 A
9  C 24  A 39  D 54 D 69 B 84 C 99 B
10  B 25  B 40 B 55 B 70 D 85 B 100 D
11 A 26 B 41 B 56 A 71 D 86 A
12 C 27  C 42 B 57 B 72 B 87 D
13  C 28 A 43  D 58 C 73 C 88 C
14 29 D 44 B 59 C 74 A 89 D
15 30 A 45 A 60 B 75 B 90 C

Overview of UPSC IAS Prelims Paper 1 2016

Civil Services Prelims Exam 2016 General Studies Paper – I Analysis

The 2016 CSP GS Paper 1 was above candidates expectations. It was far more factual and “current” than what was generally expected. So “memory” played a fairly big part in this paper. One clear departure from the past is that there were fewer analytical questions than what was anticipated.

Someone who is highly “data” and “fact” oriented would have done well in the paper. This paper carried forward CSP 2016 paper’s with a lot of vigour.

We expect the cutoffs to be marginally higher than last year.

A good attempt in this paper would have been 80 +. There were about 45 questions that everyone would have attempted. The rest would have been based on the comfort of each individual.

Detailed analysis is given in the table given below:

S. No. Topics No. Of Qs.

1

POLITY

7

2

HISTORY/Art & CULTURE

15

3

Science & TECH

8

4

GEOGRAPHY & AGRICULTURE

7

5

ECONOMY

18

6

ECOLOGY & ENVIRONMENT

18

7

MISC. GK/CURRENT AFFAIRS

27

Total

100

As per our analysis there were 36 questions that were easy, 43 that were moderate and 21 that were tough.

On this basis we expect the cut-offs to be as follows:

General/Open category: 110 (+ or – 3)
OBC: 105 (+ or – 3)
SC: 100 (+ or – 3)
ST: 95 (+ or – 3)

 

Prelims Paper 1 SET A Questions

Q. 1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: b

Exp: A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. Similarly due to prorogation bills do not lapses. Prorogation terminates a session of the House only.

Q. 2. Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?

1. Undernourishment
2. Child stunting
3. Child mortality

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: c

Exp: The GHI combines 4 component indicators: 1) the proportion of the undernourished as a percentage of the population; 2) the proportion of children under the age of five suffering from wasting; 3) the proportion of children under the age of five suffering from stunting; 4) the mortality rate of children under the age of five.

Q. 3. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?

1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Reducing import duty

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans: c

Exp: Reducing revenue expenditure and rationalizing subsidies will reduce the expenditure of the government. Whereas introducing new welfare schemes and reducing import duty will add additional burden to the government resources.

Q. 4. The establishment of “Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote Financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Exp: Existing non-bank Pre-paid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers; and other entities such as individuals / professionals; Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), corporate Business Correspondents(BCs), mobile telephone companies, super-market chains, companies, real sector cooperatives; that are owned and controlled by residents; and public sector entities may apply to set up payments banks.
Payment Banks can issue ATM/ debit cards but not credit cards. Payment Banks can NOT give loans.

Q. 5. With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.
2. It is a wireless technology and is several time faster than ‘WiFi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

Exp: Light Fidelity (Li-Fi)—a revolutionary new technology that transmits high-speed data using light. It is touted as being nearly 100 times faster than the traditional Wi-Fi technology based on transmission of radio waves. It uses visible-light communication or infrared and near-ultraviolet instead of radio-frequency spectrum, part of optical wireless communications technology, which carries much more information

Q. 6. The term Intended Nationally Determined Contribution is sometimes seen in the news in the context of:

a) Pledge made by the European countries to rehabilitate refuges from the war-affected Middle East.
b) Plain of nation outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate changes.
c) Capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.
d) Plain of action outlined by the countries of the regarding Sustainable Developments Goals.

Ans: d

Exp: INDCs are the primary means for governments to communicate internationally the steps they will take to address climate change in their own countries. INDCs will reflect each country’s ambition for reducing emissions, taking into account its domestic circumstances and capabilities for achieving sustainable development goals.

Q. 7. Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?

a) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field or renewable source of energy.
b) Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018
c) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time.
d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies

Ans: d

Exp: UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana) scheme to provide a permanent solution for financial turnaround and revival of Power Distribution companies (discoms).

Q. 8. With reference to ‘IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes given below is/are correct?

1. The International Financed Corporation, with offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

Exp: International Finance Corporation, the private-sector financing arm of World Bank, has launched rupee-denominated offshore bonds for Rs 1,600 crore, or about $250 million, attracting first-time investors to overseas rupee markets.

Q. 9. Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements :

1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

Exp: Land revenue was the chief source of income. Land was divided into four categories for purposes of assessment, wet land, dry land, orchards and woods. Usually the share was one sixth of the produce. Land revenue could be paid in cash or kind. The rates varied according to the type of the crops, soil, method of irrigation, etc.

Besides land tax, many professional taxes were also imposed. There were on shopkeepers, farm servants, workmen, posters, shoemakers, musicians etc. There was also a tax on property. Grazing and house taxes were also imposed. Commercial taxes consisted of levies, duties and customs on manufactured articles of trade were also levied. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

Q. 10. Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

(a) Swapnavasavadatta
(b) Malavikagnimitra
(c) Meghadoota
(d) Ratnavali

Ans: b

Q. 11. In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?

(a) WTO affairs
(b)SAARC affairs
(c)UNFCCC affairs
(d) India-EU negotiations on FTA

Ans: a

Exp: These are WTO jargon for different kinds of subsidies given to agriculture. In a nutshell, amber box subsidies constitute all forms of domestic support deemed to be trade distorting, primarily by encouraging excessive production. Blue box subsidies are considered somewhat less trade distorting, because while they directly link production to subsidies, they also set limits on production by way of quotas, for instance. Green box subsidies were initially considered non-distorting in terms of production and trade, though it is increasingly being recognized that they are at best minimally trade distorting. Direct income support schemes unlinked to production would be typical examples of green box subsidies.

Q. 12. Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
2. Loans received from foreign governments.
3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

Exp: Capital Budget consists of capital receipts and payments. Capital receipts are loans raised by the government from the public (which are called market loans), borrowings by the government from the Reserve Bank and other parties through sale of treasury bills, loans received from foreign bodies and governments, and recoveries of loans granted by the Central government to state and Union Territory governments and other parties. Capital payments consist of capital expenditure on acquisition of assets like land, buildings, machinery, and equipment, as also investments in shares, loans and advances granted by the Central government to state and Union Territory governments, government companies, corporations and other parties.

Q. 13. What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification?

1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive inter-national partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Exp: The convention aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships. committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation.

Q. 14. Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?

(a) Rouble
(b) Rand
(c) Indian Rupee
(d) Renminbi

Ans: d

Exp: Chinese renminbi (RMB) will be added as the fifth currency in IMF’s SDR.

Q. 15. With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
2. The World Bank participates as observer in IMFC’s meetings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

Exp: The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system, including on responses to unfolding events that may disrupt the system. It also considers proposals by the Executive Board to amend the Articles of Agreement and advises on any other matters that may be referred to it by the Board of Governors. Although the IMFC has no formal decision-making powers, in practice, it has become a key instrument for providing strategic direction to the work and policies of the Fund.

World Bank acts as observer in the meetings.

Q. 16. ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to
(a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide then with suitable sources of livelihood
(b) release the sex workers from the practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood
(c) eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers
(d) release the bonded labourers free their bondage and rehabilitate them

Ans: c

Exp: it is based on Eradication of inhuman practice of manual scavenging and comprehensive rehabilitation of manual scavengers in India.

Q. 17. With reference to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following statements:

1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry.
2.Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: To be updated…

Q. 18. Which of the following best describes the term “import cover”, sometimes seen in the news?

(a) It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross Domestic product of a country
(b) It is the total value of imports of a country in a year.
© It is the ratio between the value of exports and that of imports between two countries
(d)It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves

Ans: d

Q. 19. Consider the following pairs:

Community sometimes mentioned in the news In the affairs of

1. Kurd : Bangladesh
2. Madhesi : Nepal
3. Robingya : Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: c

Exp: Kurds inhabit a mountainous region straddling the borders of Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran and Armenia. They make up the fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East.

Q. 20. With reference to ‘Organization for the prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’ consider the following statements:

1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO
2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons free emerging
3. It provides assistance and protection to Stated Parties against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Ans: b

Exp: The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is an intergovernmental organisation not under European Union.

Q. 21. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements:

1. Under this scheme, farmers with have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

Which of the statements given about is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: b

Exp: Under the scheme there will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops. In case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%. Post-harvest losses arising out of cyclone and unseasonal rain have been covered nationally.

Q. 22. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

a) Sand deserts of northwest India
b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
d) Western Ghats

Ans: d

Exp: India has nine hornbill species, of which four are found in the Western Ghats: Indian Grey Hornbill (endemic to India), the Malabar Grey Hornbill (endemic to the Western Ghats), Malabar Pied Hornbill (endemic to India and Sri Lanka) and the widely distributed but endangered Great Hornbill. India also has one species that has one of the smallest ranges of any hornbill: the Narcondam Hornbill, found only on the island of Narcondam.

Q. 23. Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’?

1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the State through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

Exp: National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) will spearhead river conservation efforts at the national level. Implementation will be by the State Agencies and Urban Local Bodies. It is a unit of planning and management.

Q. 24. Why does the Government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?

(a) Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms
(b) Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil
(c) Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields
(d) It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops

Ans: b

Exp: When ordinary urea is applied, it gets converted to ammonium carbamate. Some of this gets converted to ammonia gas in what is called ammonia volatilisation. The rest of the ammonium carbamate undergoes chemical transfor-mation and nitrates are formed. Some of these are absorbed by the plants. The rest are either leached into the underground water or are denitrified to gaseous nitrogen and nitrous oxide under anaerobic conditions (absence of oxygen). Neem has properties that check nitrogen loss at each stage. It slows down the process of nitrate formation and hence excess nitrate is not available for denitrification.

Q. 25. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: d

Exp: The chief secretary is the head of the entire state secretariat. S/he is appointed by the Chief Minister. It has no fixed tenure.

26. With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

Exp: The “Stand up India Scheme” is being launched now to promote entrepreneurship among Scheduled Caste/Schedule Tribe and Women for loans in the range of Rs. 10 Lakhs to Rs. 100 Lakhs. The Scheme is expected to benefit large number of such entrepreneurs, as it is intended to facilitate at least two such projects per bank branch (Scheduled Commercial Bank) on an average one for each category of entrepreneur. Refinance window through Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) with an initial amount of Rs. 10,000 crore will be provided.

Q. 27. The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity
2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities
3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such indentified GIAHS

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Q. 28. Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

Exp: Tributaries- Dibang River, Lohit River, Dhansiri River, Kolong River, Kameng River, Manas River, Raidak River, Jaldhaka River, Teesta River, Subansiri River.

Q. 29. The term ‘Core Banking Solution’ is sometimes such in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?

1. It is a networking of a bank’s branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.
2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization.
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

Exp: Core Banking Solution (CBS) is networking of branches, which enables Customers to operate their accounts, and avail banking services from any branch of the Bank on CBS network, regardless of where he maintains his account. The customer is no more the customer of a Branch.

Q. 30. Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes seen in the news Their origin

1. Annex-I Countries : Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions : Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanism : Kyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: C

Exp: All the terms are associated with Kyoto Protocol. Certified Emission Reductions (CERs) are a type of emissions unit (or carbon credits) issued by the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) Executive Board for emission reductions achieved by CDM projects and verified by a DOE (Designated Operational Entity) under the rules of the Kyoto Protocol.

Annex I parties are industrialized countries belonging to the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) and countries designated as Economies in Transition under the Framework Convention on Climate Change (FCCC), that pledged to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions to 1990 levels by the year 2000.

Q. 31. In the context of the developments in bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refer to

(a) a range of enzymes used in genome editing
(b) the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism
(c) the description of the mechanism of gene expression
(d)A mechanism of genetic mutation taking place in cells

Ans: b

Exp: The sum total of all the messenger RNA molecules expressed from the genes of an organism.

Q. 32. ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to

(a) Immunization of children and pregnant women
(b) Construction of smart cities across the country
(c) India’ own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
(d) New Educational policy

Ans: a

Exp: Mission Indradhanush aims to ensure full immunization with all available vaccines for children up to two years and pregnant women.

Q. 33. Which of the following best describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?

1. Incorporating environment benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’.
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agriculture output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 3 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Exp: The objectives are:

• To increase forest/tree cover to the extent of 5 million hectares (mha) and improve quality of forest/tree cover on another 5 mha of forest/non-forest lands;
• To improve/enhance eco-system services like carbon sequestration and storage (in forests and other ecosystems), hydrological services and biodiversity; along with provisioning services like fuel, fodder, and timber and non-timber forest produces (NTFPs); and
• To increase forest based livelihood income of about 3 million households.

Q. 34. With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?

1. List of ingredients including additives
2. Nutrition information
3. Recommendations, if any made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4 Only

Ans: c

Q. 35. ‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to

a) Waste management technology
b) Wireless communication technology
c) Solar power production technology
d) Water conservation technology

Ans: b

Exp: Project Loon is a research and development project being developed by X(formerly Google X) with the mission of providing Internet access to rural and remote areas.

Q. 36. ‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the

a) production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers
b) use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households
c) installation of CNG kits in motor- cars
d) installation of water meters in urban households

Ans: a

Exp: Net metering is a billing mechanism that credits solar energy system owners for the electricity they add to the grid.

Q. 37. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?

a) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
b) World Economic Forum
c) World Bank
d) World Trade Organization (WTO)

Ans: c

Q. 38. Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally

a) Agriculturists
b) Warriors
c) Weaves
d) Traders

Ans: d

Q. 39. Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?
a) Georg Buhier
b) James Prinsep
c) Max Muller
d) William Jones

Ans: b

Q. 40. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: b

Exp: As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear both criminal and civil cases and appeals in civil cases will have to be disposed of in six months. The Act also makes the judicial process participatory and decentralized because it allows appointment of local social activists and lawyers as mediators/reconciliators.

Q. 41. With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: d

Exp: The TPP involves 12 Pacific Rim nations – Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, the United States and Vietnam. The pact aims to deepen economic ties between these nations, slashing tariffs and fostering trade to boost growth.

Q. 42. Consider the following statements:

The India-Africa Summit

1. Held in 2015 was the third such Summit
2. Was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

Exp: It was first held in 2008.

Q. 43. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?

1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances
2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit & interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

Exp: MCLR help in improving the transmission of policy rates into the lending rates of banks, these guidelines are expected to improve transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining interest rates on advances. These guidelines are also expected to ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks. Further, marginal cost of pricing of loans will help the banks to become more competitive and enhance their long run value and contribution to economic growth.

Q. 44. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’ a breed found in India?

1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on mangrows.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.

Selected the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

Exp: Kharai Camel or Swimming Camels are found only in Gujarat’s Bhuj area. It has been recently recognized as a separate breed (one among nine such breeds found in India) of camel for better conservation. This camel is adapted to the extreme climate of Ran of Kachh where shallow seas and high salinity is prevalent. Kharai Camel can live in both coastal and dry ecosystems. It grazes on saline / mangrove trees and is tolerant to high saline water. It can swim up to three kilometers into the sea in search of mangroves, their primary food. The camel is distinct from other camels because of its rounded back, long and thin legs and small feet.

Q. 45. Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?

(a) Anadaman Islands
(b) Anamalai Forests
(c ) Maikala Hills
(d)Tropical rain forest of northeast

Ans: a

Exp: The species have been found in Andaman and nicobar. The new species is about 11 metres high, whereas as the usual banana species is about three to four metres high. The fruit lux of the new species is about one metres, which is thrice the size of regular species.

Q. 46. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

(a) Amphibious warfare ship
(b) Nuclear-powered submarine
(c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
(d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Ans: c

Exp: It is Indian Navy’s first totally indigenously-designed and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel.

47. What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)’, recently in the news?

(a) Electric plane tested by NASA
(b) Solar-powered two-seater aircraft designed by Japan
(c) Space observatory launched by China
(d) Reusable rocket designed by ISRO

Ans: a

Exp: The GL-10 or Greased Lightning is a 28kg, battery-powered drone prototype that can switch between helicopter and airplane modes, giving the aircraft the maneuverability and vertical take-off capabilities of a chopper, as well as the speed and endurance of a plane designed by NASA.

Q. 48. With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have larger stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

Exp: The scheme aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies in an integrated manner with visible impact to catalyze increased production of millets in the country. Besides increasing production of millets, the Scheme through processing and value addition techniques is expected to generate consumer demand for millet based food products.

Q. 49. The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the

(a) agitation against the Partition of Bengal
(b) Home Rule Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) visit of the Simon Commission to India

Ans: a

Q. 50. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.
3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Exp: Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana Sect.

Q. 51. ‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontiercs)’, often in the news, is

a) A division of World Health Organization
b) A non-governmental international organization
c) And inter-government agency sponsored by European Union
d) A specialized agency of the United Nations

Ans: b

Exp: Doctors Without Borders, is an international humanitarian-aid non-governmental organization (NGO) and Nobel Peace Prize laureate, best known for its projects in war-torn regions and developing countries facing endemic diseases.

Q. 52. With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Exp: The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is an initiative hosted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Q. 53. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

Exp: It is a species of thorny deciduous region.

54. Which of following statements is/are correct?
Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to

1. Protection of biodiversity
2. Resilience of forest ecosystems
3. Poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

Q. 55. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol?

a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions
b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies
c) It is an inter-governments agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
d) It is one of the multilateral REDD-initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Ans: a

Exp: The Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHGP) provides accounting and reporting standards, sector guidance, calculation tools, and trainings for business and government. It establishes a comprehensive, global, standardized framework for measuring and managing emissions from private and public sector operations, value chains, products, cities, and policies.

Q. 56. With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
3. It monitors macro prudential super-vision of the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 Only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

Exp: The Chairman of the Council is the Finance Minister and its members include the heads of financial sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDA & FMC {now with SEBI}) Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, and Chief Economic Adviser. The Council can invite experts to its meeting if required. The FSDC Secretariat is in the Department of Economic Affairs.

The council will act as a co-ordination agency between the various financial sector regulators- the RBI, SEBI, IRDA and the PFRDA. This Council would monitor macro-prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates, and address inter-regulatory coordination issues.

Q. 57. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

Exp: It was initiated in Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.

Q. 58. Satya Shodhak Samaj organized

(a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar
(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
(c ) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(e) A peasant movement in Punjab

Ans: c

Exp: The main aim was to liberate the social shudra and untouchable castes from exploitation and oppression.

Q. 59. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Viruses can infect

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Plants

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

Q. 60. The term ‘Base Erosion and profit shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

(a) mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich by backward areas
(b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies
(c )exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companie
(d ) Lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning of development projects

Ans: b

Exp: Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) refers to tax avoidance strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations.

Q. 61. Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c ) Maharashtra
(d)Uttar Pradesh

Ans: a

Exp: Andhra Pradesh is set to house India’s first national investment and manufacturing zone. The NIMZ will comprise a special purpose vehicle and a developer, along with the state and the central governments as stakeholders.

Q. 62. What is/are the purpose of ‘District Mineral Foundations” in India?

1. Promoting mineral explorative activities in mineral-rich districts
2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations
3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Exp: District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is a trust set up as a non-profit body, in those districts affected by the mining works, to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining related operations. It is funded through the contributions from miners.

Q. 63. ‘SWAYAM’, an imitative of the Government of India, aims at

(a) Promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas
(b) Providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
(c) Promoting the education and health of adolescent girls
(d) Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free

Ans: d

Exp: SWAYAM is an online platform of the Ministry of HRD through which online programmes/courses will be offered to students in India.

Q. 64. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to

(a) social reforms
(b) educational reforms
(c) reforms in police administration
(d) constitutional reforms

Ans: d

Q. 65. What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?
1. Both were built in the same period.
2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.
3. Both have rock-cut monuments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the statements given above is correct

Ans: b

Exp: Both are rock cut monuments.

Q. 66. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’ sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.
2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address.
3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Exp: Bitcoin are not maintained by the Central Bank. Bitcoins are created as a reward for payment processing work in which users offer their computing power to verify and record payments into a public ledger.

Q. 67. Consider the following statements:

1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: b

Exp: New Development Bank has been established by the BRICS.

Q. 68. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to

(a) Constitutional reforms
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) Linking of rivers
(d) Protection of Western Ghats

Ans: d

Q. 69. Consider the following:
1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
3. Indian Reforms Association

Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

Exp: Raja Ram Mohan Roy is associated with Calcutta Unitarian Committee

Q. 70. Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to sea by a long navigational channel?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan

Ans: d

Exp: The Rajasthan government is exploring ways to develop an artificial inland port in Jalore by bringing in Arabian Sea water into Rajasthan through Gujarat. If implemented, Rajasthan will become accessible by water transport and will be able to shed the tag of a landlocked state.

 

 

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Prelims Exam Trend (2014 & 15)

The objective type format of Prelims Paper requires an aspirant to choose the correct answer from the codes given and generally the statements and codes are confusing in nature rather than providing an easy access to correct answer. This has been done to check the grasp of the topic by the aspirant.

Hence, aspirant requires a conceptual clarity of each subject along with grasp of multi-dimensions or says micro-topics of each subject so that intensive coverage of subject can be done.

Here, we are analyzing the trend of Paper 1 (2014 and 2015) i.e. General Studies to provide a broad overview about the subject wise division in the paper to the aspirants.

The broad subject-wise question distribution is as follows:

S.No. Subject Number of questions asked in 2015 Number of questions asked in 2014 
1. History and Culture 20 17
2. Geography 14 15
3. Polity 14 13
4. Economy 10 21
5. Environment 18 10
6. Science and technology 16 09
7. Current affairs 08 15

Here is the IAS Prelims 2016 GS II CSAT Question Paper SET A with Answer Key

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the —Central-Vigilance Commission-and-Comptroller and Auditor—General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to Society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.
Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should he defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.

1. According to the passage, which of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration?

1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities
2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services
3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services
4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer .c

2. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society
2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Earlier UPSC had notified that CSAT would not be considered in deciding the ranking and cut-off and it would be qualifying in nature.

Answer .

3. Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?


(a) Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving
(b) Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership
(c) The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services
(d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services

Answer .d

4. According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?

(a) Better job security and safeguards
(b) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission
(c) Judicial review of executive decisions
(d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process

Answer .d


Passage-2

In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; rights and duties cannot remain formal abstraction. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as  a personal virtue, this  solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice.

5. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions
2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god
3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice
Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer .

6. Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?


(a) Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions
(b) Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue
(c) Balance between and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society
(d) Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god

Answer .

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4 Comments

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  1. Chennai IAS Academy

    Very detailed answer key. Good effort and best to share on our social profile.

  2. people like you should be banned from the internet. You have no clue of what you are talking about.
    A good attempt is 80+ questions? Even toppers don’t get that many questions correct!! And you are saying that is the cut off! Why do you write nonsense on the Internet and waste everybody’s time? Get a real job in life.
    This is pathetic.

    1. Well said Christy !! He is out of his mind..
      People are struggling to reach 100.. That is 50 questions

  3. Christy is too hot. But a real good attempt of giving 80 answers with explanations is very tough and tiring one. So hats off the attempt first.

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Disclaimers & Statutory Warnings ! We do not claim and we are not responsible for any official or non official news regarding exam figures, vacancies or number of posts in job advertisement (govt. as well as private agencies),exam dates, paper leak , exam paper cancellation news content & exam graphic images etc. The news & content may be rumors & false. Only visit & consider the official website always as a true source of news. We don’t assure that the data provided here is completely correct. One can use the information at their own risk. We are not responsible for any consequences that occur on applying for any job or walkin data that we provided in our portal. Click any link at your own risk in our portal. We are not responsible for any loss you get on doing so. We don’t have control on the portal as these are maintained by third party people. The Job seekers are advised to be careful and check the information from other websites and official websites make conform regarding any particular advertisement.
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