Morning/Evening uptet 2016 -17 answer sheet all sets December exam

Uttar Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test was conducted by UP Basic Education Board in December 2016. UP TET was organized in morning (10:00 am to 12:30 pm) for upper primary (UPRI) and in evening (02:30 pm to 05:00 pm) for Primary (PRI). It was to be organized at 1128 test centers in the state.Uttar pradesh government is one of the best government and every year conduct the exam of UPTET. A huge no of candidate have sitting in this exam Basically, the test was conducted to find eligibility of the candidates for being appointed as TGT, PRT teachers.

Candidates have to download their uptet 2016 answer sheet set wise from the direct link provided below. Through the keys, applicants can match their answers and find out their estimated score and qualifying status. Marking will be based on the official uptet 2016 answer sheet which is to be released by upbasiceduboard.gov.in.

answer key 2016Click here to see :- uptet 2016 -17 answer key sheet sets wise

answer key 2016Also See :- uptet 2016-17 cut off list district wise

Also See :- Official Govt jobs 2016-17 in U.P  Latest 123402 Upcoming Vacancies Apply Online

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Morning/Evening uptet 2016-17 answer sheet all sets 2nd feb exam

A large no of candidate who have filled the application form and given the exam of UPTET and waiting for the solved papers and find the solved papers so every candidate can easily check here easily because we are provide the exam with solution for the candidates.morning and evening set of UPTET is not hard but not easy that’s why every candidate are happy after giving the UPTET exam.full UPTET solved papers with section wise because after giving the exam many candidate confused that’s why we have given in the below please check easily and carefully.

UPTET Set W Answer key and Question paper Upper Primary Level

Part 1 : Child Development and Cognition ques. 1-30:
1. ___ is one of the methods of the graphic presentation of the frequency distribution.
Ans. (2) Histogram

2. While teaching in general class atmost which psychological fact should be taken in attention?
Ans. (3) Individual difference

3. Propounder of “Two-factors theory” of transfer of learning was
Ans. (1) Thorndike

4. Failing to retain or to be able to recall what has been learnt is called
Ans. (2) Forgetting.

5. “The dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine the unique adjustment to his environment”, is called
Ans. (1) Personality.

6. Normal males have XY chromosomes whereas normal females have:
Ans. (1) XX chromosomes

7. “That point on the scale of scores below which one-half of the scores &
above which one half of the scores lie” is called _____
Ans. (1) Mean.

8. Who propounded the theory of trial and error in learning?
Ans. (3) Thorndike

9. According to ___, “Development of the child is the product of heredity
and environment”.
Ans. (1) Woodworth.

10. “Psychology first lost its soul, then its mind and then it lost its consciousness, it still has behavior of a kind” was stated by:
Ans. (4) McDaugall

11. Latency period in psychosexual development is related to the age range of:
Ans. (2) 6 to puberty.

12. Psychosocial theory of Development was proposed by:
Ans. (3) Kohler.

13. According to __, Id, Ego and Super ego are three components of personality.
Ans. (4) Freud

14. Which behaviorist considers that language is acquired like other
behaviors through operant conditioning?
Ans. (2) Skinner.

15. Which of the following is not the measure of central tendency?
Ans. (1) Range.

16. IQ children having average intelligence will be between ___.
Ans. (4) 110-129

17. Which of the following level of measurement is the best?
Ans. (2) Ratio.

18. Which of the following is not a projective test of personality?
Ans. (4) 16 PF Test

19. Hierarchy of need theory was given by _____
Ans. (3) Kohler.

20. Which of the following is called the master gland?
Ans. (1) Thyroid gland.

21. ____ gave the concept of collective unconscious.
Ans. (1) Jung.

22. “Grapes are sour” is an example of
Ans. (1) Repression.

23. Operant conditioning theory of learning was given by _____
Ans. (4) Skinner.

24. According to Spearman (1904) the ability to reason and solve problems is known as
Ans. (3) Specific intelligence.

25. Bandura stated that children acquire responses through modeling, which is also known as _.
Ans. (3) Observational learning.

26. Which stage of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development is characterized by abstract logic and mature moral reasoning’?
Ans. (1) Sensori-motor stage.

27. ___ is the sum total of innate personality characteristics.
Ans. (3) Heredity.

28. According to Psychologists through which of the following methods instincts can be transformed ?
Ans. (3) Merging.

29. Formation of concepts is a _ process.
Ans.  (4) cumulative

30. Which one of the following is not the cause of forgetting?
Ans. (4) Ability of the teacher.

UPTET Set W Answer key and Question paper Upper Primary Level Part 3 : English from ques. 90-120.

61. Write the name of the writer of the lesson ‘A Fellow — Traveler’.
Ans. (1) Ruskin Bond.

62. Fill in the blanks.
She has been living _______ this city ____ ten years.
Ans. (2) in, for.

63. Transform the following sentence by using ‘too’. Choose the correct alternative given below;
She is over anxious for the safety of her son.
Ans. (2) She is too anxious for the safety of her son.

64. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
‘Atheist’
Ans. (3) Believer.

65. – Choose the word similar in meaning: Industrious
Ans. (4) Diligent.

66. Change the following into indirect speech by choosing correct alternative
Our teacher said to us, “sugar dissolves in water.”
(4) Our teacher told us that sugar dissolves in water.

67. Choose the appropriate synonym of word “OPULENT”.
Ans. (4) Wealthy

68. Select the appropriate alternative which best expresses the meaning of
the following phrase:
To beat the air
Ans. (2) To make effort that are useless or vain.

69. Select the appropriate synonym of word TRUNCATE.
Ans. (3) Cut off.

70. Choose the opposite of the word MASTICATE.
Ans. (2) Chew.

71. Select the antonym of underlined word – This “frivolous” remarks provoked no comments.
Ans. (1) Serious.

72. Pedagogical knowledge includes
(3) both (1) and (2).

73. What is the skill among the ones given below that cannot be tested in a formal written examination?
Ans. (4) Reading for information

74. Drills are considered important in which method?
Ans. (3) Bilingual Method.

75. Which of the following is a lexical word?
Ans. (4) Whether

76. English is a __ language in India.
Ans. (2) foreign.

77. ‘Shylock’ is a character in which play?
Ans. (3) The Merchant of Venice.

78. Complete the following proverb:
The pen is mightier ___
Ans. (4) than the sword.

79. The line ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’ has been written by which of the following?
Ans. (3) Robert Frost.

80. Fill in the blank phrasal verb.
It is n’t easy to ___ children now-a-days.
Ans. (2) Bring Up.

81. Pick out the comparative form of the sentence.
He is as wise as Soloman
Ans. (1) Soloman is wiser than he is

82. Point out the figure of speech in the following sentence:
‘Here’s the smell of the blood still;
all the perfumes of Arabia will not sweeten this little hand’
Ans. (2) Hyperbole.

83. Who wrote ‘Some books are to be tasted, others to be swallowed, and some few to be chewed and digested’?
Ans. (4) E.M. Forster.

84. Choose the incorrect part of the sentence given below
One of Mohan’s ambitions / (a)
in life were to visit / (b)
all the historic places / (c)
in the country. /(d)
Ans. (2) b.

85. Choose the correct part of speech of the underlined word.
It is a “unique” book.
Ans. (3) Adjective.

86. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition.
He killed two birds __ one stone.
Ans. (4) with

87. ‘Arms and the Man’ was written by which playwright?
Ans. (3) George Bernard Shaw.

88. Point out the active voice of the following sentence:
This notice has been altered.
Ans. (1) Alteration has been made in this notice by someone.

89. Fill in the blank using the correct prepositional phrase.
Shall we play indoors ___ sweating out in the sun?
Ans. (1) instead of.

90. Fill in the blank with an appropriate choice.
If you make a promise. you must be sure to _______ it.
Ans. (2) keep.

UPTET Answer key Set W Part 4 Math and Science
Question (91-150)

91. How will you find creative students in a class 7?
Ans. (3) By asking them to tell new usage of an object.

92. The speed of sound in air at N.T.P. is 332 m/s. If air pressure becomes four
times, then the speed of sound will be
Ans. (2) 332 m/s.

93. Two magnetic lines of force
Ans. (3) cannot intersect at all.

94. For which colour of light the focal length of a lens will be maximum?
Ans. (3) Red.

95. 100 Newton force is applied perpendicularly on the surface of 10 em2, the pressure on that surface will be
Ans. (2) 10 x 10 5 Newton m2.

96. If the kinetic energy of a body is increased by 0.1%, then increase in its momentum will be
Ans. (2) 0.1%.

97. A force F = (5i+ 3j) Newton displaces a body by (2i — j’) metre.
The work done is
Ans. (1) zero.

98. The temperature at which ferrornaetism vanishes and the substance becomes pararnagnetic, is called
Ans. (2) Boyle temperature.

99. Each of the five capacitors shown in the given bridge circuit is of 10 iF connected with IOOV D.C. source. The equivalent capacitance between the points A and B is
Ans. (4) 10uF

100. Name the process used for purification of white bauxite ore containing no iron oxide as impurity
Ans. (2) Hall’s process.

101. Name an acid used for removing ink stains.
Ans. (3) Formic acid.

102. Recently discovered most stable allotropes of Carbon is
Ans. (4) C56.

103. Which among the following is amphoteric oxide?
Ans. (3) SiO2.

104. Ant sting contains acid
Ans. (4) Formic acid.

105. What is the colour of the precipitate which is formed when aqueous
solutions of Sodium sulphate and Barium chloride are mixed?
Ans. (4) Orange.

106. Which one is least reactive?
(1) Iron.

107. Which is not obtained by the destructive distillation of coal?
Ans. (2) Petroleum.

108. The main function of phloem in plants is to
Ans. (4) Help in transpiration.

109. In food chain herbivores are
Ans. (1) primary producers.

110. Symbiotic association of algae and fungi is
Ans. (2) Lichen.

111. In ficus the pollination is affected by
Ans. (3) Water.

112. Which is vestigial organ in man?
Ans. (3) Ileum.

113. Which organ is not helpful in respiration in mammals?
Ans. (4) Larynx.

114. Thromboplastin required for blood clotting is secreted by
Ans. (2) Platelets.

115. Entamoeba histolytica cause which of the following disease?
Ans. (2) Dysentery.

116. Disease causing agent is known as
Ans. (4) Pathogen

117. While Science teaching many aspects of living things can be seen. One aspect is done at molecular level. It will be the base of the description of life—
Ans. (2) physical description of the speed of planet.

118. Underground animals to be protected in
Ans. (3) Aquarium.

119. The objective of microteaching is
Ans. (3) Teaching lessons in micro-parts for better understanding.

120. A successful Science teacher is one who
Ans. (2) develops inherent capabilities of students.

121. Mode of the given data:
25, 23, 22, 21, 24, 23, 25, 23, 22, 21, 23, 24, 23, 22, 23 is
Ans. (2) 22.

122. If 2a + 3 b  and 2 n+2 – 3 b+1 = 5
then the value of a and b is
Ans. (2) 3,2.

123. How many bricks will be required to construct a wall 3 m long, 1.5 m high and 0.4 m thick, if each brick measures 30cm x 15cm x 8cm?
Ans. (3) 500.

124.  519 x 519—81 x81 / 519×519 + 2x519x81+81×81 is equal to
Ans. (3) 100/78 .

125 IF x -1/x = ½ then the value of 4 x2 + 4/ x 2 is
Ans. (1) 7.

126. Factors of [1- 1/ (a-b)-2]
Ans. (1) (l+a—b)(1—a+b).

127. H.C.F. of two numbers is 9 and their L.C.M. is 270. If the sum of the numbers
is 99, their difference is equal to
Ans. (1) 18.

128. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is 51, then sum will be
(3) 21,500.

129. If __=m, then the value of m is
Ans. (4)

130. The value of __ will be
Ans. (4) 1/n

131. If sum of three consecutive multiple of 7 is 777, then least multiple will be
Ans. (1) 252.

132. If the perimeter of right-angled isosceles triangle is (4[2 + 4) cm, then the length of the hypotenuse is
Ans. (3) 8 cm.

133. Edges of a cuboids are a, b, c,. its volume is V cubic units and its total
surface is S sq. units. Then
Ans. (1) S(a+b+c).

134. If a + b + c = 0, then a4. + b4 + c4 a2b2 + b2c2 + c2a2 is equal to
Ans. (3) 1.

135. Given Pie-graph shows the cost of construction of a house. If total cost of construction is 15,00,000, the amount spent on labour is
Ans. (4) 3,75,000.

136. If half of a number is equal to 0.07 times of another number, then their ratio will be
Ans. (4) 1:14.

137. If (29)75 is divided by 28, then remainder will be
Ans. (2) 1.

138. A bag contains 4 black balls, 6 blue balls, 3 white balls and 5 red balls. One ball is drawn from the bag. Probability that the ball drawn is black or white
Ans. (3) 4/15.

139. If 0 is the centre of a circle in given x and y is
Ans. (4) x+2y=360°

140. The greatest among numbers and is
Ans. (1).

141. To introduce the concept of fraction teacher can start with –.
Ans. (2) to introduce the fractional part of the things existing in the surrounding.

142. ‘From General to Particular’ principle applied in
Ans. (4) Analytical method.

143. Which objective of learning is fulfilled to understand the concept and principles of mathematics?
Ans. (2) Previous knowledge.

144. If a:b4:5,b:c6:9,
c : d=15 : 19, then a: b .: c:d is
Ans. (1) 8:10:15:19.

145. H.C.F.of and is
Ans. (2) 575.

146. If two complementary angles are in the ratio 2: 3, then angles will be
Ans. (3) 36°, 540.

ABCD is a rhombus. If ACB = 30°, then ADB is
Ans. (1) 30°.

148. Difference of two natural numbers is always
Ans. (1) an integer.

149. One factor of 2×2 — 9x — 26 is
Ans. (2) x+2.

150. 2 tables and 3 chairs together cost 2,000 whereas 3 tables and 2 chairs together cost 2,500. Then the total cost of 1 table and 5 chairs are
Ans. (4) 2,000.

Part IV Social Studies and Other Subjects :

91. The distance between the Earth and the Moon is approximately
(2) 384400 kms

92. Which of the following rivers of India flows through a Rift Valley?
(2) Narmada

93. ‘Operation Flood’ is related to
(2) Milk Production

94. The CORE of the Interior of the Earth is made up of which of the following elements ?
(3) Iron and Nickel

95. Which of the following is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere?
(2) Troposphere

96. Lord Macaulay is associated with
(3) English Education

97. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was
(4) Annie Besant

98. Which period is called as ‘Golden Age’ in Indian History?
(3) Gupta period

99. Moti Masjid in the Red Fort at Velhi was built by
(4) Aurangzeb

100. Which city was founded by Sikaridar Lodi?
(4) Agra

101. Who among the following founded the Vikramsila Mahavihara, a great centre of education?
(1) Dharmapala

102. Kalibana is in which State?
(3) Rajasthan

103. Who established the Ram Krishna Mission?
(2) Swami Vivekanand

104. Who presided the group which pursuit in the case against the soldiers to Azad Hind Fauj?
(1) Bhulabhai Desai

105. Curved shape bricks are found from which place of Sindhu civilization?
(2) Lothal

106. Which States in India implemented  Panchayati Raj in 1959 for the first time?
(I) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh

107. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not
(1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

108. Irrespective of social and economic level, all Indians should have the right to vote.’ Who said this ?
(3) B.R. Arnbedkar

109. Constitutional Government stands for
(4) All of the above

110. How many members are nominated by the President in Rajya Sabha?
(3 ) 12

111. Evaluation is related to
(1) the skill development of the students

112. Classroom teaching should be
(3) Interactive

113. Which is most important aid in the teaching of Social Studies?
(2) Audio-visual

114. The term curriculum in field of education refers to
(4) Text-material to be used in the class

115. TLM is not used in Social Studies
(4) Napier Strips

116. In which of the following climatic regions are the Eskimos found?
(1) Tundra region

117. Who among the following first gave the scheme of ‘Natural region’ of the world?
(4) Herbertson

118. ‘World Environmental Day’ is celebrated on
(3) 5 June

119. River carrying maximum sediment in the world is
(I) Amazon

120. Which of the following is an example of Extinct Volcano?
(1) Kilirnanjaro

121. Bunchy-top is a disease of
(3) Banana

122. Fertigation is related to
(4) Water & Fertilizer application

123. Unsuitable fruit for Jam making is
(3) Orange.

124. How much percent of total soluble solid is found in jelly?
(1) 65

125. Elements of Painting are
(4) All above

126. Which are opposite colour?
(I) Red-Green

127. Who was the grandfather of the Modern Indian Art?
(2) Avanindra Nath

128. Select the correct sequence in chronological order:

129. Which of the following Books was written by Sharang Dev?
(1) Sangeet Ratnakar

130. ‘Amad’ word is associated with
(3) Sitar

131. In which category Raga Peeloo exist?
(3) Both(l)&(2)

132. ‘Whom’s subtitle is wrong?

133. Which of the following has more calorie in food?
(1) Fat

134. Which of the following work is facilitated by muscle?
(4) All of the above

135. When should people exercise?
(3) Empty stomach in the morning

136. Where the brain is situated in human?
(3) In Skull

137. When was first Football World Cup held?
(1) 1872

138. For which game Sayed Modi was awarded Indian National Award’ ?
(1) Badminton

139. How many circles are there in Olympic Flag?
(4) Five

140. How many players are there in Kabbadi ?
(2) Seven

141. Freedom of speech and expression is not unlimited. It can be restricted on the basis of
(4) All the above

142. Which of the following subjects is not enumerated in the State list?
(3) Citizenship

143. President can remove Governor on the basis of

144. What is the maximum membership of a State Legislative Assembly?
(2) 500

145. Which of the following rights have been named as ‘the heart and soul’ of Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Arnbedkar?
(1) Right to Equality

146. Sonalika is a variety of which crop?
(3) Wheat

147. Seed rate of Bajra is
Ans. 4kg/ha

148. Which method of irrigation saves maximum water?
(I) Drop irrigation method

149. The first critical stage of wheat is
(3) Tillering stage

150. The branch of Soil Science which study the soil in context of plant growth is called as
(4) Edaphology

Paper 1 Set P English Answer key –

UP TET Paper 1 Set P Hindi Answer key
41 : 3
42 : 1
43 : 3
44 : 1
45 : 3
46 : 1
47 : 3
48 : 3
49 : 3
50 : 2
51 : 3
52 : 2
53 : 3
54 : 2
55 :
56 : 3
57 : 2
58 : 1
59 :
60 : 4

UPTET Answer key Set Q Environmental Studies Primary Level
121 : 3
122 : 4
123 : 1
124 : 4
125 : 3
126 : 3
127 : 4
128 : 1
129 : 2
130 : 1
131 : 4
132 : 4
133 : 4
134 : 3
135 : 2
136 : 4
137 : 2
138 : 3
139 : 4
140 : 1
141 : 2
142 : 2
143 : 1
144 : 3
145 : 3
146 : 4
147 : 1
148 : 2
149 : 3
150 : 2

Primary Environmental Science Set S Answer key
121. : 2
122. : 2
123. : 2
124. : 3
125. : 3
126. : 4
127. : 1
128. : 2
129. : 2
130. : 2
131. : 4
132. : 1
133. : 1
134. : 2
135. : 4
136. : 3
137. : 3
138. : 1
139. : 2
140. : 1
141. : 3
142. : 4
143. : 4
144. : 3
145. : 2
146. : 4
147. : 2
148. : 1
149. : 4
150. : 4

Primary English Set S Answer key
61. : 3
62. : 2
63. : 1
64. : 2
65. : 2
66. :
67. : 4
68. : 2
69. : 2
70. :
71. :
72. : 3
73. :
74. :
75. : 2
76. : 1
77. : 4
78. :
79. : 1
80. : 4
81. :
82. :
83. : 1
84. : 2
85. : 3
86. : 2
87. : 2
88. : 3
89. : 4
90. : 2

Primary Math Set S Answer key
91. : 2
92. : 1
93. : 3
94. : 2
95. : 3
96. : 3
97. : 1
98. : 2
99. : 1
100. : 2
101. : 2
102. : 2
103. : 4
104. : 4
105. : 1
106. : 3
107. : 4
108. : 1
109. : 2
100. : 1
111. : 1
112. : 4
113. : 2
114. : 3
115. : 3
116. : 3
117. : 3
118. : 4
119. : 3
120. : 2

Primary Hindi Set S Answer key
31. : 2
32. : 1
33. : 2
34. : 4
35. : 2
36. :
37. : 3
38. : 2
39. : 1
40. : 4
41. : 4
42. : 4
43. : 4
44. : 1
45. : 3
46. : 1
47. : 3
48. : 1
49. : 3
50. : 2
51. :
52. :
53. : 3
54. : 2
55. : 3
56. : 2
57. : 3
58. : 3
59. : 2
60. : 1

Primary Set X Answer key

Mathematics
121. : 2
122. : 4
123. : 1
124. : 1
125. : 2
126. : *
127. : 4
128. : 3
129. : 4
130. : 2
131. :*
132. : 1
133. : 2
134. : 2
135. : 4
136. : 1
137. : 2
138. : 3
139. : 3
140. : 3
141. : 2
142. : 2
143. : 1
144. : 2
145. : 3
146. : 2
147. : 2
148. : 1
149. : 2
150. : 1

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Disclaimers & Statutory Warnings ! We do not claim and we are not responsible for any official or non official news regarding exam figures, vacancies or number of posts in job advertisement (govt. as well as private agencies),exam dates, paper leak , exam paper cancellation news content & exam graphic images etc. The news & content may be rumors & false. Only visit & consider the official website always as a true source of news. We don’t assure that the data provided here is completely correct. One can use the information at their own risk. We are not responsible for any consequences that occur on applying for any job or walkin data that we provided in our portal. Click any link at your own risk in our portal. We are not responsible for any loss you get on doing so. We don’t have control on the portal as these are maintained by third party people. The Job seekers are advised to be careful and check the information from other websites and official websites make conform regarding any particular advertisement.
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